Quick Answer: Do Any Or Does Any?

Has or have after anyone?

If anyone has a photo is correct.

because anyone is a singular word and so we need to use has, which is an ‘s’ verb to be used after third person singular, ie.

he, she, it.

HAS..

Does anyone have have?

Anyone is a third-person, singular indefinite pronoun, but does always goes with have.

Could or can you please?

“Could” is the polite form of “can”—so both are correct, but we use them in different situations. We use “can” when we are telling someone to do something. We use “could” when we are making a request. Teacher to students: “Can you please be quiet!”

Is your guys correct grammar?

You guys’ is correct written, pronounced you guys’s. (Dropping the s on the written version because guys is a plural, not because I think it should always be dropped if the word ends in an s.) You rather than your because you guys is a unit and the possessive case doesn’t need to be commuted across each element of it.

What is the difference between anyone and any one?

When it means “anybody,” “anyone” is spelled as a single word: “anyone can enter the drawing.” But when it means “any single one,” “any one” is spelled as two words: “any one of the tickets may win.”

Do any of you have or has?

When you use the auxiliary verb does you have to use the verb have with it. “Does anyone of you have a pen?” is correct. In spoken English, most people will drop ‘of you’ and say, “Does anyone have a pen?” Use have with these pronouns and with plural nouns.

Does or do one of you?

But, “any one” has to be two words: Does any one of you know the answer? Yes, “does” is used because “one” is clearly expressed.

Is any of you singular or plural?

All four are correct. With ‘any of’ and a plural noun/pronoun you can use either a singular or plural verb.

Do each of you or does each of you?

The subject of the sentence is “each”, and “each” is singular; the only correct choice is “Does…”. To say “Do each of your brothers…” is incorrect.

Does anyone of you or do anyone of you?

Both questions are grammatically incorrect, and not for the reasons you may have guessed. The word ”anyone’ is singular; therefore, your construct ‘has anyone of you’ is correct and ‘have anyone of you’ is incorrect for the same reason because ‘have’ is plural noun used with plural subjects.

Which is correct anybody has or anybody have?

Although “anybody” is in the third person singular, and hence the correct verb form used with it must contain an “s” (as in “anybody who has read the book …”), “have” in the situation described above is the only “correct” option.

Why does everyone have or have?

Everyone has. Everyone does have. Everyone is a singular pronoun, so the singular form of the verb is used. … This is because everyone is considered a collective singular noun, which in turn is due to its origin as a compound word.